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The Gap Theory in Genesis 1:2

 
Introduction

1)

Socrates, the Greek philosopher, was a man who questioned things.  Not content to accept the norm he questioned why, how etc.  When Paul preached to the Bereans, of whom we read in Acts 17:11, these were more noble than those in Thessalonica in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.  For hundreds of years Christians believed the earth was still and did not move.

2)

When Job began to profess his knowledge and “debate God,” God’s response was to make real to Job how little he knew.

3)

The Lord asked questions, not for information, but to exercise the mind and heart.  For years, the gap theory, and it is called a theory, has been taught, but questions arise:
 

a)

What is the Biblical authority for teaching a gap between Genesis 1:1 and verse 2?
 

b)

Was there a period of time between Genesis 1:1 and Genesis 1:2 when cavemen grunted and made guttural sounds?
 

c)

Was there a time when the devil caused such a serious rebellion in the world that God stood by as His whole world became a giant cemetery for man and beast, and ultimately becoming null and void?
 

d)

Where is there a single clause, verse, or suggestion in the scriptures for such teaching? OR have we  accepted that which was taught without questioning, accepting man’s pseudoscience and adjusting the scriptures to suit the ideas of ungodly men?

4)

In this paper I propose a third consideration which, to my mind is Biblical but, does not limit time duration of the earth, allowing for a long earth history.  I have not seen it elsewhere but it may well have been, and I have never come across it.

First consideration

1)

Since the Spirit of God does not give any indication of how long the earth was in existence before the Spirit of God moved on the face of the waters, it could just have been created, or been millennia.

2)

Again, it is assumed when God created Heaven, He created the earth at the same time, but what evidence is there they were both created at the same time?

3)

Again, it is assumed that when God created the earth He immediately began its preparation for man.  True Biblical exposition is not based on assumptions.

4)

The next consideration is, when did the gap theory of Genesis 1:1 and 2, come to be accepted?
 

a)

For several thousand years it was generally accepted that the Bible is the inspired Word of God.  Then Darwin, with his theory of evolution, became accepted; man went about things back to front. Instead of believing the Word of God, man accepted the pseudo evidences the had evolved over millions of years.  It was then decided there was a gap between Genesis 1:1 and 2.
 

b)

Three avenues are purporting to be Biblical, scientific, and yet supporting the thought that the earth became a sphere of chaos, there was a race of beings before the flood, sin had come into the world, and the result was death and the judgment of God on the entire earth.  The saints decided since the earth was millions of years old there had to be a gap in the Genesis record: This was supported by:
     

i)

The acceptance of evolution and Darwinism.
     

ii)

The making of a geological column that no where exits anywhere on earth but only in the drawings in books.  The man made column made the earth millions of years old.  The problem was a circular error, for that which was found in the rocks was dated by evolution, and the evolution of man was dated by the rocks they were found in.
     

iii)

The notes on this verse by C I Scofield.
 

c)

Therefore, biblical adjustments were needed to accommodate the gap theory, which was known as the ruin restoration theory.  Satanic science became more true than the scripture of truth.  It was then taught that there is a gap between Genesis 1:1 and 2.  It is said that some time between the two verses there was a cataclysmic event when Satan fell, and the whole earth fell into chaos.  Where in all the scriptures is there any support for any of this?

 

d)

The argument was and is that the earth became without form and void because of a judgment by God.  To support that fallacy, men refer to or quote Isaiah 34:11 and Jeremiah 4:23.  This a very erroneous teaching, totally ignoring the context of the passages.  If there was a gap of millions of years when man evolved, then sin and death had to come in through some unknown being.  If this is true, it necessitates a pre-Adam population who, knowing the will of God, rebelled against God in sinning so severely,  the entire earth was destroyed.  This imagined situation means pre-Adam beings were more wicked than Sodom and Gommorah or the earth in Noah’s time because of the severity of the ruination of the earth.  Consider the following:

     

i)

Was Paul wrong and the Holy Spirit deceptive when it was written, “Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned” (Rom. 5:12)?
     

ii)

Was Peter misunderstanding the scriptures when he wrote, “And (God) spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly” (2 Pet. 2:5; 3:6).  Why did Peter use the flood as an example and not something supposedly more severe as in the gap theory?
 

e)

The word translated without form is, tôhû and is used 20 times in the O. T. (Deut. 32:10; Job 26:7; Psa. 107:40).  It simply means there was no distinguishing marks due to it being covered with the deep that is water.  When one looks over the ocean it is void of any distinguishing features, but not because of sin, or Satan’s activity.
 

f)

The word bôhû occurs three times in the scriptures. In Genesis 1:2 and Jeremiah 4:23 it is  translated “void” and in Isaiah 34:11 it is translated emptiness.


Which is the true criteria?
The first truth which must be emphatic is geology or science never proves the Bible right, but the scriptures give evidence to geology or science being right or wrong.

 

a)

Man’s thoughts must reconcile with the Bible and not the other way round.  The impossibility of Satan’s fall before the creating and filling out of creation until after the 7th day, the reason for saying such is when God looked, everything was very good (Gen. 1:31).  That could not have been said if part of creation was under the power of Satan.


The evidence as I see it

The first assumption is that God created the Heaven and earth at the same time.  The scriptures do not say that.  In John the Lord speaks of the resurrection and the unjust, but they do not happen at the same time (Rev. 20:3-5).

 

a)

Job records the questions of God to him.
 

b)

Gird up now thy loins like a man; for I will demand of thee, and answer thou me. Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding. Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof; When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?  (Job 38:3-7).
 

c)

Who are the morning stars? They cannot be literal stars for they were not created until the 3rd day of creation (Gen. 1:16).
 

d)

The morning stars sang when the earth was created then their place of dwelling (heaven) had to be created and populated before the preparation of the earth for man and then populated.
     

When did Satan fall?
It is my understanding that Satan fell after the earth, Heaven, and man were created for it is only when all was according to the pleasure of God He could say it was very good.  It is my understanding Satan fell after Adam and Eve were formed but before they were tempted by Satan (Gen. 3:1-14).  It would seem that Satan is desirous of the worship of man and being denied it, sought the place of God and His worship.

. . . . Rowan Jennings